NCLEX-RN Practice Quiz Test Bank (75 

Questions)

NCLEXRN-01-001

Question Tag: hypertension

Question Category: Physiological Integrity, Reduction of 

Risk Potential Which individual is at greatest risk for 

developing hypertension? • A. 45-year-old African-American attorney

• B. 60-year-old Asian-American shop owner • C. 40-year-old Caucasian nurse

• D. 55-year-old Hispanic teacher

Correct Answer: A: 45-year-old African American attorney

• Option A: African-Americans develop high blood pressure at younger ages than 

other groups in the US. Researchers have uncovered that African-Americans respond differently to hypertensive drugs than other groups of people. They are also

found out to be more sensitive to salt, which increases the risk of developing 

hypertension. • Option B: The incidence of hypertension in Asian-Americans does not appear to be

significantly higher than the general population, according to limited US data. • Option C: The racial disparity in hypertension and hypertension-related 

outcomes has been recognized for decades with African-Americans with greater

risks than Caucasians. • Option D: Hypertension prevalence rates in Hispanics may vary by gender and 

country of origin. Hispanic Americans overall have relatively low levels of 

hypertension, despite elevated levels of diabetes and obesity. NCLEXRN-01-002

Question Tag: acetaminophen

Question Category: Physiological Integrity, Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies

A 15-year-old female who ingested 15 tablets of maximum strength acetaminophen 45 

minutes ago is rushed to the emergency department. Which of these orders should the 

nurse do first? • A. Gastric lavage

• B. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) orally

• C. Start an IV Dextrose 5% with 0.33% normal saline to keep the vein open

• D. Have the patient drink activated charcoal mixed with water

Correct Answer: A. Gastric lavage

• Option A: Acetaminophen overdose is extremely toxic to the liver causing 

hepatotoxicity. Early symptoms of hepatic damage include nausea, vomiting, 

abdominal pain, and diarrhea. If not treated immediately, hepatic necrosis occurs 

and may lead to death. Removing as much of the drug as possible is the first step 

in treatment for acetaminophen overdose, this is best done through gastric lavage.

Gastric lavage (irrigation) and aspiration consist of flushing the stomach with fluids

and then aspirating the fluid back out. This procedure is done in life-threatening

cases such as acetaminophen toxicity and only if less than one (1) hour has occurred after ingestion. • Option B: The oral formulation of acetylcysteine is the drug of choice for the 

treatment of acetaminophen overdose but should be done after GI 

decontamination with activated charcoal. Liver damage is minimized by giving 

acetylcysteine (Mucomyst), the antidote for acetaminophen. Acetylcysteine reduces injury by substituting for depleted glutathione in the reaction that converts

the toxic metabolite of acetaminophen to its nontoxic form. When given within 8 

hours of acetaminophen toxicity, acetylcysteine is effective in preventing severe 

liver

injury. It is administered orally or intravenously. • Option C: Intermittent IV infusion with Dextrose 5% may be considered for latepresenting or chronic ingestion. • Option D: Oral activated charcoal (AC) avidly adsorbs acetaminophen and may be 

administered if the patient presents within 1 hour after ingesting a potentially toxic 

dose. Charcoal should not be administered immediately before or with antidotes 

since it can effectively adsorb it and neutralize the benefits.

NCLEXRN-01-003

Question Tag: cardiac catheterization

Question Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment, Management of Care Which complication of cardiac catheterization should the nurse monitor for in the initial 

24 hours after the procedure? • A. Angina at rest • B. Thrombus formation

• C. Dizziness • D. Falling blood pressure Correct Answer: B. Thrombus formation

A thrombus formation may prevent blood from flowing normally through the circulatory 

system, which may become an embolism, and block the flow of blood towards major organs in the body. • Option A: The reported incidence of myocardial infarction with angina at rest is 

less than 0.1%, and is mostly influenced by patient-related factors like the extent 

and severity of underlying cardiovascular-related diseases and technique-related

factors. • Options C & D: A falling BP and dizziness occur along with hemorrhage of the 

insertion site which is associated with the first 12 hours after the procedure.

NCLEXRN-01-004

Question Tag: renal calculi, flank pain

Question Category: Physiological Integrity, Basic Care and Comfort

A client is admitted to the emergency room with renal calculi and is complaining of 

moderate to severe flank pain and nausea. The client’s temperature is 100.8 degrees Fahrenheit. The priority nursing goal for this client is:

• A. Maintain fluid and electrolyte balance

• B. Control nausea

• C. Manage pain

• D. Prevent urinary tract infection

Correct Answer: C. Manage pain

Managing pain is always a priority because it ultimately improves the quality of life. The 

cornerstone of ureteral colic management is analgesia, which can be achieved most 

expediently with parenteral narcotics or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). • Option A: IV hydration in the setting of acute renal colic is controversial. Whereas 

some authorities believe that IV fluids hasten the passage of the stone through the urogenital system, others express concern that additional hydrostatic pressure exacerbates the pain of renal colic. • Option B: Because nausea and vomiting frequently accompany acute renal

colic, antiemetics often play a role in renal colic therapy. Several antiemetics

have a sedating effect that is often helpful. • Option D: Overuse of the more effective antibiotic agents leaves only highly resistant bacteria, but failure to adequately treat a UTI complicated by an 

obstructing calculus can result in potentially life-threatening urosepsis and 

pyonephrosis.

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NCLEXRN-01-005

Question Tag: growth, school age

Question Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

What would the nurse expect to see while assessing the growth of children during 

their school age years? • A. Decreasing amounts of body fat and muscle mass • B. Little change in body appearance from year to year • C. Progressive height increase of 4 inches each year • D. Yearly weight gain of about 5.5 pounds per year

Correct Answer: D. Yearly weight gain of about 5.5 pounds per year

School age children gain about 5.5 pounds each year and increase about 2 inches in 

height. Between ages 2 to 10 years, a child will grow at a steady pace. • Option A: Decreasing amounts of body fat and muscle mass are common in toddlers. • Option B: A decrease in the change in body appearance occurs among young adults. • Option C: Growth spurts are common in school-age children, as are periods of slow 

growth.

NCLEXRN-01-006

Question Tag: blood pressure Question Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance

At a community health fair, the blood pressure of a 62-year-old client is 160/96 

mmHg. The client states “My blood pressure is usually much lower.” The nurse 

should tell the client to:

• A. Go get a blood pressure check within the next 15 minutes • B. Check blood pressure again in two (2) months • C. See the healthcare provider immediately

• D. Visit the health care provider within one (1) week for a BP check

Correct Answer: A. Go get a blood pressure check within the next 15 minutes.

The blood pressure reading is moderately high with the need to have it rechecked after a

few minutes to verify. The client states it is ‘usually much lower.’ Thus a concern exists 

for complications such as stroke. • Options B & D: Waiting 2 months or a week for follow-up is too long. • Option C: Immediate check by the provider of care is not warranted.

NCLEXRN-01-007

Question Tag: prioritization

Question Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment, Safety and Infection Control

The hospital has sounded the call for a disaster drill on the evening shift. Which of these 

clients would the nurse put first on the list to be discharged in order to make a room available for a new admission? • A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator dependent for over seven 

(7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia five days ago. • B. A young adult with diabetes mellitus Type 2 for over ten (10) years and 

admitted with antibiotic-induced diarrhea 24 hours ago. • C. An elderly client with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and 

lupus, and was admitted with Stevens-Johnson syndrome that morning. • D. An adolescent with a positive HIV test and admitted for acute cellulitis of the 

lower leg 48 hours ago. Correct Answer: A. A middle-aged client with a history of being ventilator 

dependent for over seven (7) years and admitted with bacterial pneumonia 

five days ago.

The best candidate for discharge is one who has had a chronic condition and is most familiar

with their

care. This client in option A is most likely stable and could continue medication therapy at 

home. • Option B: The client with antibiotic-induced diarrhea still needs continuous strict 

monitoring as the blood sugar levels may become unstable and dehydration is still 

possible. • Option C: Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a rare, serious disorder of the skin 

and mucous membranes. It’s usually a reaction to medication that starts with flulike symptoms, followed by a painful rash that spreads and blisters. • Option D: Cellulitis is often an underestimated complication of HIV disease, 

but they are responsible for an appreciable morbidity.