HESI MED SURG EXAM REVIEW UPDATED 2022 (Q&A) ADDED POSSIBLE QUESTIONS
Hesi Med Surg review 2020/2021
1. What instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching
plan of a client who had a cataract extraction today?
a. Sexual activities may be resumed upon return home
b. Light housekeeping is permitted but avoid heavy lifting
c. Use a metal eye shield on operative eye during the day
d. Administer eye ointment before applying eye drops
2. A male adult comes to the urgent care clinic 5 days after being
diagnose with influenza. He is short of breath, febrile, and coughing
green colored sputum. Which intervention should the nurse implement
first?
a. Obtain a sputum sample for culture
b. Check his oxygen saturation level
c. Administer an oral antipyretic
d. Auscultate bilateral lung sound
3. An elder male client tells the nurse that he is loosing sleep because he
has to get up several times at night to go to the bathroom that he has
trouble starting his urinary stream and that he does not feel like his
bladder is ever completely empty. Which intervention should the nurse
implement?
a. collect a urine specimen for culture analysis
b. obtain a fingerstick blood glucose level
c. palpate the bladder above the symphysis pubis
d. review the client fluid intake
4. An adult client is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and a
urinary tract infection (UTI) Prescriptions for intravenous antibiotics
and insulin infusion are initiated. Which serum laboratory value
warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
a. blood ph of 7.30
b. glucose of 350 mg /dl
c. white blood cell count of 15000mm
d. potassium of 2.5 meq/l
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5. A client with sickle cell anemia develops a fever during the last hour of
administration of a unit of packed red blood cell. When notifying the
healthcare provider what information should the nurse provide first
using the SBAR communication process?
a. explain specific reason for urgent notification
b. preface the report by stating the clients name and admitting
diagnosis
c. communicate the pre-transfusion temperatures
d. optain prn prescription for acetaminophen for fever 101f
6. An adult male client is admitted for pneumocystis carinil pneumonia
(PCP) secondary to aids. While hospitalize he receives IV pentamidine
isethionate therapy. In preparing this client for discharge what
important aspect regarding his medication therapy should the nurse
explain?
a. AZT therapy must be stopped when IV aerosol pentamine is
being used.
b. IV
pentamine will be given until oral pentamine can be tolerated c.
d. Iv pentamine may offer protection to others aids related conditions
such as kaposis sarcoma
7. A client subjective data includes dysuria, urgency, and urinary
frequency.
What action should the nurse implement next?
a. collect a clean catch specimen
b. palpate the suprapubic region
c. instruct to wipe from front to back
d. inquire about recent sexual activity
8. A client tells the nurse that her biopsy results indicate that the cancer
cells are well differentiated How should the nurse respond?
a. offer the client reassurance that this information indicates that
the clients cancer cells are benign
b. explain that these tissue cells often respond more effectively to
radiation than to chemotherapy
c.
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It will be necessary to continue prophylactic doses of IV or
aerosol pentamine every month
ask the client in the healthcare provider has giving her any
information about the classification of her cancer
d. help the client make plans to begin inmediate treatment since her
cancer is likely to spread quickly
9. A client with a chronic kidney disease is treated on hemodialysis.
During the 1 treatment clients blood pressure drops from 150/90 to
80/30 Which action should the nurse take first?
a. monitor bp q45 minutes
b. lower the head of the chair and elevate feet
c. stop dialysis treatment
d. administer 5%albumin IV
10.A client with deep vain thrombosis (DVT) is receiving a continues
infusion of heparin sodium 25,000 unit in 5?xtrose injection 250ml.
The prescription indicates the dosage should be increase 900 units/hr.
The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many
ml/hr?
=9
11.The nurse is obtaining the admission history for a client with
suspected peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which subjective data reported
by the client supports this diagnosis?
a. upper mid abdominal gnawing and burning pain
b. severe abdominal cramps and diarrhea after eating spicy foods
c. marked loss of weight and appetite over the last few months
d. use of chewable and liquid antacids for indigestion
12.The nurse is providing preoperative education for a jewish client
schedule to receive a xenograft graft to promote burn healing. Which
information should the nurse provide this client?
a. the xenograft is taken from nonhuman sources
b. grafting increases the risk for bacterial infection
c. as the burn heals the graft permanently attaches
d. grafts are later removed by debriding procedure
13.A client who took a camping vacation two weeks ago in a country with
a tropical climate comes to the clinic describing vague symptoms and
diarrhea for the past week. Which finding is most important for the
nurse to report?
a. jaundice sclera
b. intestinal cramping
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c. weakness and fatigue
d. weight loss
14.During a home visit the nurse assesses the skin of a client with
eczema who reports than an exacerbation of symptoms has occurred
during the last week. Which information is most useful in determining
the possible cause of the symptoms?
a. an old friend with eczema came for visit
b. recently received an influenza immunization
c. corticosteroid cream was applied to eczema
d. a grandson and his new dog recently visited
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15.When explaining dietary guidelines to a client with acute
glomerulonephritis (AGN) which instruction should the nurse include in
the dietary teaching?
a. select a protein rich food daily
b. restrict sodium intake
c. eat high potassium foods
d. Avoid foods high in carbohydrate
16.A male client who is 24hr post operative for an exploratory
laparoctomy complains that he is starving because he has had no real
food since before surgery. Prior to advancing his diet which
intervention should the nurse implememt?
a. discontinue intravenous therapy
b. Assess for abdominal distension and tenderness
c. Obtain a prescription for a diet change
d. Auscultate bowel sound in all four quadrants
17.A client diagnose with stable angina secondary to ischemic heart
disease has a prescription for sublingual (SL) nitroglycerin (NTG). The
nurse should tell the client to follow which instructions if chest pain is
not relieved after taking 3 NTG tables 5 min apart?
a. drive to the nearest emergency department
b. take another NTG SL tablet and lie down until angina subsides
c. call primary healthcare provider
d. call 911 pain is unrelieved and chew a tablet of aspirin 325mg
18.After taking orlistat (Xenical) for one week a femela client tells the
home health nurse that she is experiencing increasingly frequent oily
stools and flatus. What action should the nurse take?
a. obtain stool specimen to evaluate for occult blood and fat
content
b. instruct the client to increase her intake of saturated fats over
the next week
c.
d.
advice the client to stop taking the drug and contact the healthcare
provider
a.
b.
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ask the client to describe her dietary intake history for the last
several
days
c.
19.Two days after an abscess of the chin was drained the client returns to
the clinic with fever chills and a maculopapular rash with pruritis. The
client has taken an oral antibiotic and cleansed the wound today with
provide iodine (Betadine) solution. Which intervention should the nurse
implement first?
a. determine if the client has a history of diabetes
b. assess airway patency and oxygen saturation
c. review recent medication history and allergies
(POSSIBLE ANSWER TOO)
d. obtain samples for complete blood count and cultures
20.A client experiences an ABO incompatibility reaction after multiple
blood transfusions. Which finding should the nurse report immediately
to the health care provider?
a. low back pain and hypotension
b. rhinitis and nasal stuffiness
c. delayed painful rash with urticarial
d. arthritic joint changes and chronic pain
21.A young adult male who has had type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) is
admitted to the intensive care unit with hyperglycemic nonketotic
syndrome (HHNS). A sliding scale protocol for an isotonic IV solution
with regular insulin is prescribed based on the results of a continuous
blood glucose monitoring device that is attached to the client’s central
venous catheter. When the client’s respirations become labored and
his lungs sound indicate crackles what action should the nurse take?
a. collect a specimen for a white blood cell count and cultures
b. determine the clients glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) (POSSIBLE
ANSWER)
c. administer insulin IV push until the clients fluid volume is
adjusted
d. decrease infusion rate to address fluid overload
22.When preparing to apply a fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal patch the
nurse notes that the previously applied patch is intact on the client’s
upper back and the client denies pain. What action should the nurse
take?
a. Remove the patch and consult with the healthcare provider
about the client pain resolution
a.
b.
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c.
b. Place the patch on the clients shoulder and leave both patches in
place for 12 hours
c. Administer an oral analgesic and evaluate its effectiveness
before applying a new patch
d.
23.A client who had a myocardial infarction is admitted to the coronary
critical care unit (CCU) with a nitroglycerin drip infusing. The clients
last blood pressure measurements was 78/36.What action should the
nurse implement?
obtain blood pressure q5 minutes using duranap machine
change the dilution of the nitroglycerin infusion
reduce the rate of the nitroglycerin infusion
d. begin dopamine infusion at 5mcg/kg per minute
24.An adolescent is admitted to the hospital because of a suicide attempt
with an overdose of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which blood values are
most important for the nurse to monitor during the first 72 hours
following ingestion of this overdose?
a. BUN creatinine specific gravity
b. White blood count, hemoglobin hematocrit
c. PH,PCO2, HC03
d. LDH OR LD, SGOT OR ALT, SGPT OR AST
25.An elderly post-operative female client is receiving morphine sulfate
via a PCA pump. Which assessment finding should prompt a nurse to
administer the prescribed PRN medication naloxone?
a. her respiratory rate is 7 breath/minute
b. she indicates that she feels as if she cannot get enough air to
breath
c. she has intercostal retractions and bilateral wheezing is
auscultated
d. her pulse oximeter is 89% on room air
26.Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the muscarinic
agent bethanechol (Urecholine) is effective for a client diagnose with
urinary retention?
a. urinary output equal to intake
b. no terminal urinary dribbling
a.
b.
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Apply a new patch in a different location after removing the
original patch
c.
c. denies stress incontinence
d. absence of xerostomia
27.Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle aged adult
client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The
client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN
prescription should be administer if the clients begins to exhibit signs
and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT s)?
a. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2mg IM
b. Chlorpromazine (thorazine) 50 mg IM
c. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
d. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
28.Which instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan of a
client who is taking the diuretic spironolactone (Aldactone)?
call the healthcare provider f you develop gynecomastia
Take the medication in the morning
a.
b.
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c.
Avoid caffeine and smoking
d. Increase your consumption of bananas and oranges
29.A glucagon emergency kit is prescribed for a client with type 1
diabetes mellitus. When should the nurse instruct the client to take the
glucagon?
a. after meals to increase endogenous insulin secretion
b. after insulin administration to prevent hypoglycemia
c. when recognized signs of severe hypoglycemia occur
d. when unable to eat during sick days
30.A client with hyperthyroidism is being treated with radioactive iodine
(I131). Which explanation should be included in preparing this client
for this treatment?
a.
b. explain
the need for using lead shields for 2 to 3 weeks after the treatment
c. describe the signs of goiter because this is a common side
effects of radioactive iodine
d. explain that relief of the signs/ symptoms of hyperthyroidism will
occur immediately
31.A female client is being treated for tuberculosis with rifampin (rifadin)
which statement indicates that further teaching is needed?
a. I will take my usual contraceptive for birth control
32.A client is discharged with a prescription for warfarin (Coumadin).
What discharge instructions should the nurse emphasize to the client?
a. take a multi vitamin supplement daily
b. use an astringent for superficial bleeding
c. avoid going barefoot especially outside
d. include large amounts of spinach in the diet
33.In caring for a client with diabetes insipidus who is receiving an
antidiuretic hormone intranasal which serum lab test is most important
for the nurse to monitor?
a. osmolality
b. calcium
c. platelets
d. glucose
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describe radioactive iodine as a tasteless, colorless medication
administered by the healthcare provider
34.After administering dihydroergotamine (Migranal) 1 mg
subcutaneously to a client with a severe migraine headache the nurse
should explain that relief can be expected within what time frame?
a. 2 hours
b. 5 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 15 minutes
35.A client with hypertension who has been taking labetalol for two
weeks, reports a five pound (2.2 kg) weight gain. Which follow up
assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
a. capillary refill
b. body temperature
c. muscle strength
d. breath sounds
36.A male client is receiving pilocarpine hydrochloride (Isopto Carpine)
ophthalmic drops for glaucoma. He calls the clinic and ask the nurse
why he has difficulty seeing at night. What explanation should the
nurse provide?
a. The eye drops slow pupil response to accommodate for darkness
b. The drops increase the fluid in the eyes and cloud the visual field
( possible answer)
c. The drug can cause lens to become more opaque
d. The medication causes pupils to dilate which reduces night vision
37.A client who is taking and oral dose of tetracycline complains of
gastrointestinal upset. What snack should the nurse instruct the client
to take with the tetracycline?
a. toasted wheat bread and jelly
b. cheese and crackers
c. cold cereal with skim milk
d. fruit flavored yogurt
38.The therapeutic effect of insulin in treating type 1 diabetes mellitus is
based on which physiologic action?
a. Facilitates transport of glucose into the cell
b. Increases intracellular receptor site sensitivity
c. Stimulates function of beta cells in the pancreas
d. Delays carbohydrates digestion and absorption
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39.The health care provider prescribe a medication for an older adult
client who is complaining of insomnia. And instructs the client to return
in 2 weeks. The nurse should question which prescription?
a. Eszoplicone (Lunesta)10 mg orally at bed time
b. Zolpidem 10 mg orally at bed time
c. Temazepan orally at bed time
d. Ramelteon orally at bedtime
40.A male client reports to the nurse that he is experiencing GI distress
from high dose of a corticosteroid and is planning to stop taking the
medication. In response to the client’s statement what nursing action
is most important for the nurse to take?
a. Encourage the client to take medication with food to decrease GI
distress
b.
c. Review the
clients dosing schedule to ensure he is taking the prescribed amount
d. Assess the client for other indication of adverse effects of
corticosteroid
41.Fifteen minutes after receiving sulfa athenozole. A male client report a
burning sensation over his abdomen chest and groin. Which
intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
a. Auscultate lung sounds for wheezing
b. Review the clients list if drugs allergies
c. Add sulfamethinozole to clients allergies
d. Check neurological vital signs
42.Antibiotic resistant organism are a major infection control problems. To
help minimize the emergence of resistant bacteria what instruction
should the nurse provide to the clients?
a. stop taking prescribed antibiotics when symptoms decrease
b. avoid using antibiotics when suffering from colds or the flu
c. ask the healthcare provider to prescribe the newest antibiotic
when needed
d. request a prescription for first time vancomysin for a sore throat
43.A client with symptoms of influenza that started the previous day ask
the clinic nurse about taking oseltamivir (Tamiflu) to treat the infection.
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Advice the client that the medication should be stopped
gradually rather than abruptly.
Which response should the nurse provide?
a. Advise the client once symptoms occur is too late to receive an
influenza vaccination
Refer the client to the healthcare provider at the clinic to obtain
a medication prescription
b.
c. Explain to the client that antibiotics are not useful in treating
viral infections such as influenza
d. Instruct the client that over the counter medications are
sufficient to manage influenza symptoms
44.Twenty minutes after the nurse starts a secondary IV infusion of
cafepime (maxipime) 2 grams using an infusion pump to deliver the
dose in one hour, the client reports feeling nauseated. What action
should the nurse implement?
a. stop medication infusion and notify the healthcare provider of
the adverse effect
b. increase the rate of the infusion to complete the dose of the
medication more rapidly
c.
d. reassure the client
that the nausea is not related to the iv infusion
45.The nurse administer donepezil hydrochloride (Aricept) to a client with
Alzheimer’s disease as an intervention for which client problem?
a. fluid volume excess
b. disturbed thought processes
c. chronic pain
d. altered breathing patterns
46.To prevent deep vein thrombosis following knee replacement surgery,
an adult male client is receiving enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously
daily.
Which laboratory finding requires immediate action by the nurse?
a. blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20mg/dl or 7.1 mmol/L (SI)
b. Hematocrit 45%
c. Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dl or 88.4 mol/L (SI)
d. Platelet count of 100,000/mm3 or 100x10??/ L (SI)
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continue the infusion and administer a prn antiemetic
prescription
47.A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is managed with metformin
(Glucophage), an oral hypoglycemic agent. The primary health care
provider prescribes ad additional medication injected exenatide
(byetta).
Which information is most important for the nurse to teach this client?
a. Administer subcutaneously after meals
b. Consume additional sources of potassium
c. Notify the healthcare provider if anorexia occurs
d. Watch for signs of jitteriness or diaphoresis ( POSSIBLE ANSWER)
48.A client is who is diagnose with schizophrenia receives a prescription
for an atypical antipsychotic drug aripipazole (Abilify). Which
assessment should the nurse perform to monitor for an adrenergic
receptor antagonist side effect that commonly occurs atypical
antipsychotic agents?
a. observe the client hallucinatory behaviors
b. obtain the client finger stick glucose levels
c. measure the clients lying and standing blood pressure
d. determine the clients abnormal involuntary movements scale
(AIMS)
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1- A client with pheocromocytoma reports the onset of a severe
headache. The nurse observes that the client is very diaphoretic. Which
assessment data should the nurse obtain first?
Blood pressure
2- The drainage in the chest tube of a client with emphysema has
changed fromclear watery fluid. What action would be best for the nurse to
take/
Maintain the current IV antibiotic schedule
3- A client is admitted with a sudden onset of right sided the nurse
complete first?
Observe for peripheral edema
4- When planning care for a client newly diagnose with open angle
glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing diagnosis of “ Visual
sensory/perceptual alterations”. This diagnosis is based on which etiology?
Decreased peripheral vision
5- A client in the operating room received succinylcholine. The client is
experiencing muscle rigidity and has an extremely high temperature. What
action should the nurse implement?
Call the PACU nurse to prepare for prolonged ventilatory support
Also know that PACU is BP, Respiration and Pulse
6- A client who is receiving packed red blood cells develops nausea and
vomiting. What action should the nurse take first?
Stop the infusion of blood
Te lo pueden poner como hemodialysis y tambien es STOP transfusion 7-
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital for
uncontrolled DM. Insulin therapy is initiated with initial dose of Humulin
insulin at 8:00 at 16:00 the client complains of diaphoresis, rapid heart
beat, and feeling shaky. What should the nurse do first?
Determine the client current glucose level
8- After suctioning the patient with an endotracheal tube, which
assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the intervention was
effective?
Increase in breath sounds
9- The nurse observes an increase number of blood clots in the drainage
tubing of a client with continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral
resection of the prostate (TURP). What is the best initial nursing action?
Provide additional oral fluid intake
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Also with TURP you must know that 3l of water a day is needed
10- Which nursing diagnosis should be selected for a client who is
receiving thrombolytic infusions for treatment of an acute myocardial
infarction?
Risk for injury related to effects of thrombolysis
11- The nurse is assessing a client who has returned from surgery following
a thoracotomy. Which finding indicates the client is experiencing adequate
gas exchange?
The client demonstrates effective coughing and deep breathing exercises 12-
When caring for a client with nephrotic syndrome which assessment is most
important for the nurse to obtain?
Daily Weight
13- A client who had a biliopancreatic diversion procedure (BOP) 3 months
ago is admitted with severe dehydration. Which assessment finding
warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
Gastroccult positive emesis
14- A female client with possible acute renal failure (ARF) is admitted to the
hospital and mannitol (Osmitrol) is prescribed as a fluid challenge. Prior
to carrying out this prescription, what intervention should the nurse
implement?
• No specific nursing action is required
• Instruct the client to empty the bladder
• Collect a clean catch urine specimen
• Obtain vital signs and breathe sounds
15- The nurse positions a male client for a lumbar puncture by placing him in
the side-lying position with his knees flexed and pulled toward his trunk.
What action should the nurse implement next?
• Call another nurse to assist the healthcare provider
• Provide a small pillow for the client to curl around
• Instruct the client to perform a Valsalva maneuver
• Support the client’s head bent forward to the chest
16- When teaching a client with osteoporosis to increase weight-bearing
exercise, how should the nurse explain the purpose of this activity?
• Strengthen leg muscles
• Promote venous return
• Increase bone strength
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• Restore range of motion
17- A male tells the clinic nurse that he is experiencing burning on urination,
and assessment that he had sexual intercourse four days ago with a
woman he casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?
• Observe the perineal area for a chancroid-like lesion
• Obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture (POSSIBLE
ANSWER)
• Identify all sexual partners in the last four days
• Assess for perineal itching, erythemia, and excoriation
18- An older female client with long term type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) is
seen in the doctor routine health assessment. To determine if the client is
experiencing any long-term complications of DM, which assessments
should the nurse obtain? Select all that apply:
• Visual acuity
• Serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• Signs of respiratory tract infection • Sensation in feet and legs
• Skin condition of lower extremities
19- Which laboratory test result is most important for the nurse to report to
thesurgeon prior to a client’s scheduled abdominal surgery?
• Potassium level of 4 mEq/liter
• Blood glucose of 90 mg/dl
• Serum creatinine of 5 mg/dl (POSSIBLE ANSWER)
• Hemoglobin level of 13 grams
20- A client who has a history of long-standing back pain treated with
methadone (Dolophine), is admitted to the surgical unit following
urological surgery. What modifications in the plan of care should the
nurse make for this client’s pain management during the postoperative
period?
• Use minimal parenteral opioids for surgical pain, in addition to
oral methadone
• Maintain client’s methadone, and medicate surgical pain based
on pain rating
• Consult with surgeon about increasing methadone in lieu of
parenteral opioids
• Make no changes in standard pain management for this surgery
and hold methadone
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21- The nurse applies an automatic external defibrillator (AED) to a client
who collapsed in an exam room at a community clinic. What action
should the nurse take next?
• Determine the defibrillator reading
• Assess the client’s oxygen saturation
• Bring a crash cart to the exam room
• Measure the client’s blood pressure
22- Which change in lab values would indicate to the nurse that treatment
for gout is successful?
• Decreased serum uric acid
• Decreased serum purine
• Increased serum uric acid
• Increased serum purine
23- The nurse reports that a client is at risk for a brain attack (stroke)
finding?• Jugular vein distention
• Palpable cervical lymph node
• Carotid bruit
• Nuchal rigidity
24- The nurse is assessing a group of older adults. What factor in a male
client’shistory puts him at greatest risk for developing colon cancer?
• Is excessively exposed to sunlight
• Eats a high-fat diet
• Smokes cigars (POSSIBLE ANSWER)
• Has intestinal polyps
25- While taking routine vital signs at 0400 AM, the nurse notes that a client
who had a total knee replacement the previous day has a heart rate of
126 beats/minute. What action should the nurse take first?
• Compare heart rate trends with blood pressure trends ( POSSIBLE
ANSWER)
• Review the medical record for a history of cardiac disease
• Check surgical drainage system and bandage for bleeding
• Determine current pain level using a 10-point scale
26- A client who suffered an electrical injury on the left foot is admitted to
the burn include in this client’s plan of care? (incomplete)
• Assess lung sounds q4 hours
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• Perform passive range of motion
• Evaluate level of consciousness
• Continuous cardiac monitoring
27- The nurse is taking a client’s blood pressure sphygmomanometer cuff is
inflated. What (incomplete)
• Administer a prescribed PRN antianxiety (POSSIBLE ANSWER)
• Assess the client’s recent serum calcium
• Notify the healthcare provider of the
• Prepare to implement seizure precautions
28- A client with eczema is using an over-the-counter (OTC) topical product
with urea 10% OTC (Aqua Care Cream) to the affected skin areas. Which
finding reflects the expected therapeutic response?
• Decreased weeping of ulcerations in affected area (POSSIBLE
ANSWER)
• Healing with a return to normal skin appearance
• Reduced pain in eczematous areas
• Hydration of affected dry skin areas
29- During an annual health check, the clinic nurse updates an adult female’s
health history. When discussing the woman’s history of lactose
intolerance, the client reports that it has been years since she last
consumed dairy products. What dietary suggestions should the nurse
recommend to help ensure that the client receives an adequate intake of
calcium? Select all that apply:
• Increase intake of salmon, sardines, tofu, and leafy green vegetables
• Sip a half-cup of mil during a mid-day meal at least every other day
• Eat at least six servings of citrus fruits weekly
• Include 2 to 3 servings of yellow and green squash weekly
• Take a calcium supplement with vitamin D daily
30- A healthcare worker with no known exposure to tuberculosis has received
aMantoux tuberculosis skin test. The nurse’s assessment of the test after
72 hours indicates 5mm of erythema without induration. What is the best
initial nursing action?
• Review client’s history for
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