Hesi Pathophysiology Exam v1 ALL 55 Answers 2020 – 2021 All Correct Questions & Answers 100% Correct
HESI Pathophysiology Exam V1 All 55 Answers
2020/2021
HESI Pathophysiology Exam
1. The nurse is caring for a client with liver cirrhosis. Which diagnostic test
will most likely be altered because of liver damage?
A Bone scan.
B Serum glucose.
C MRI of the chest.
D Colonoscopy.
With liver cirrhosis, there is an alteration in the function of liver tissue. One
function of the liver is to either breakdown glycogen into glucose in response to
glucagon or produce glycogen in response to insulin. For the client with liver
cirrhosis, the blood glucose level could be either too high or too low. Choices A,
C, and D are not specifically altered in liver cirrhosis.
2. A client recovering from a kidney transplant has an 8 mm area of
induration after an intradermal PPD tuberculin test. What will need to be
done prior to treating this client for active tuberculosis?
A Nothing since this is a diagnostic indication of active disease.
B Determine active disease present through a chest x-ray.
C Conduct a multiple-puncture tine test.
D Evaluate results of liver function tests.
A positive tuberculin test alone does not indicate active disease. A chest x-ray
will be done to evaluate for the presence of dense lesions in the apical and
posterior segments of the upper lobe and possible cavity formation. Choice A is
incorrect because a positive tuberculin skin test alone does not indicate active
disease. Choice C is incorrect because a multiple-puncture tine test is less
accurate than the PPD test. Choice D is incorrect because liver function tests are
obtained prior to treating with isoniazid. The client needs to be diagnosed with
active tuberculosis first.
3. The nurse determines that a client is at risk for the development of
osteoporosis because of which assessment findings?
A African American female aged 45.
B Diagnosed with inflammatory bowel disease.
C Infrequent alcohol intake.
D Participates in walking 5 times a week for 30 minutes.
A malabsorption disorder, such as inflammatory bowel disease, is a nonmodifiable
risk for the development of osteoporosis. This disorder will affect
calcium absorption. Choice A is incorrect because African American females
have greater bone density than other ethnic backgrounds. Choice C is incorrect
because heavy alcohol intake suppresses bone formation and contributes to
nutritional deficiencies associated with osteoporosis. Choice D is incorrect
because walking increases blood flow to the bones and increases osteoblast
growth and activity.
4. A client’s latest electrocardiogram waveform is demonstrating changes
in the ST segment. The nurse is concerned that the client will begin to
demonstrate:
A Ventricular dysrhythmias.
B Atrial dysrhythmias.
C Atrioventricular conduction blocks.
D Sinus arrhythmias.
Ventricular dysrhythmias originate in the ventricles. One characteristic of this
waveform is an abnormal ST segment. Choice B is incorrect because P wave
changes are seen in atrial dysrhythmias. Choice C is incorrect because changes
would be seen in the QRS complex and P waves. Choice D is incorrect because
a sinus arrhythmia is a sinus rhythm that fluctuates with respirations. There are
no specific waveform changes with this arrhythmia.
5. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus has microalbuminuria. The nurse
should prepare to instruct the client on which treatment for this clinical
finding? (Select all that apply.)
A Weight management.
B Hypertension treatment.
C Exercise.
D Reduce salt intake.
E Postural hypotension.
Microalbuminuria is an abnormal level of albumin in the urine. For the client with
type 2 diabetes mellitus, management of this finding includes weight
management, control of hypertension, exercise, and reduce salt intake. Choice E
is incorrect because postural hypotension is a finding consistent with autonomic
neuropathies or another type of complication of diabetes mellitus.
6. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is surprised to learn of a wound on
the bottom of the left heel. What would be the reason why this client is not
aware of this wound?
A Microvascular changes in the skin.
B Sensory loss from peripheral neuropathy.
C Elevated blood lipid levels.
D Autonomic neuropathy.
Peripheral neuropathy is associated with diabetes mellitus. This disorder appears
first in the toes and feet and progresses upwards. The client with this disorder
has distal paresthesias and impaired sensations of pain, light touch, and
vibration. Choice A is not correct because microvascular changes in the skin may
contribute to the development of wound but, however, would not be the reason
why the client was unaware of the wound. Choice C is incorrect because
elevated blood lipid levels do not cause sensory changes in those with diabetes
mellitus. Choice D is incorrect because autonomic neuropathy affects sweating
and pupillary, cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and genitourinary functioning.
7. The nurse is providing dietary instruction for a client with diverticular
disease. What should the nurse instruct the client to avoid eating?
A Unpeeled raw fruit.
B Popcorn and berries.
C Cooked cereals.
D Raw vegetables.
The client with diverticular disease is instructed to avoid food with small seeds
such as popcorn and berries which could obstruct diverticula. Choices A, C, and
D are foods that are recommended to increase the fiber and residue in the client
with diverticular disease.
8. A client, being treated with whole blood for a massive gastrointestinal
hemorrhage, continues to bleed and has a platelet count of 25,000. Which
treatment should the nurse prepare to administer to this client?
A Albumin.
B Fresh frozen plasma.
C Platelets.
D Packed red blood cells.
An infusion of platelets is indicated in the client with a platelet count between
20,000 – 50,000 who is hemorrhaging. Choice A is a blood volume expander that
is used in shock and trauma. Choice B is used to restore clotting factors. Choice
D is used to restore intravascular volume.
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