MILESTONE EXAM I NEWEST ACTUAL
2024 EXAM WITH WELL DETAILED
ANSWERS BY EXPERT
A client with trichomoniasis (Trichomonas vaginalis)
receives a prescription for metronidazole. Which
instruction is most important for the nurse to include in
this client's teaching plan?
A.Avoid alcohol consumption.
B.Complete the medication regimen.
C.Use a barrier contraceptive method.
D.Treat partner(s) concurrently.
A
Rationale:
Clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol and
products containing alcohol while taking metronidazole
because of the possibility of a disulfiram-like reaction.
Option B helps prevent the development of
metronidazole-resistant T. vaginalis. To prevent
reinfection, clients should abstain from sexual contact or
use a barrier contraceptive while taking metronidazole,
and their partner(s) should be treated concurrently. The
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most important instruction for client well-being is option
A.
A client with HIV who was recently diagnosed with
tuberculosis (TB) asks the nurse, "Why do I need to take
all of these medications for TB?" What information
should the nurse provide?
A.Antiretroviral medications decrease the efficacy of the
TB drugs.
B.Multiple drugs prevent the development of resistant
organisms.
C.Duration of the medication regimen is shortened.
D.Potential adverse drug reactions are minimized.
B –
Rationale:
A multidrug regimen is prescribed for a client with HIV
and TB to prevent the development of resistance of the
tubercle bacilli. Although antitubercular medications can
inhibit some antiretrovirals, a multidrug regimen is
needed to inhibit the proliferation of the virulent
tubercle bacilli. The duration of antitubercular therapy is
typically 6 to 9 months and is not shortened by the use of
multiple medications. A client who is receiving HIV and
TB therapy is at an increased risk of adverse reactions
because of the complex medication regimens and
complications secondary to immunosuppression.
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Dopamine is administered to a client who is hypotensive.
Which finding should the nurse identify as a therapeutic
response?
A.Gain in weight
B.Increase in urine output
C.Improved gastric motility
D.Decrease in blood pressure
B - Rationale:
:Intropin activates dopamine receptors in the kidney and
dilates blood vessels to improve renal perfusion, so an
increase in urine output indicates an increase in
glomerular filtration caused by increased arterial blood
pressure. Option A is related to fluid retention but is not
an indicator of a therapeutic response to dopamine
therapy. Option C is not related to the vasopressor effect
of dopamine therapy. Dopamine increases cardiac
output, which increases a client's blood pressure, not
option D.
A 21-year-old female client is receiving tetracycline for
acne. Which client teaching should the nurse include?
A.Oral contraceptives may not be effective.
B.Drinking cranberry juice will promote healing.
C.Breast tenderness may occur as a side effect.
D.The urine will turn a red-orange color.
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A –
Rationale:
:Certain antibiotics, such as tetracycline, decrease the
effectiveness of oral contraceptives. Options B, C, and D
do not convey accurate information related to client
teaching about this medication.
An 80-year-old client who had a colon resection
yesterday is receiving a constant dose of hydromorphone
via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which
finding requires immediate nursing action?
A.The client is drowsy and complains of pruritus.
B.Pupils are 3 mm; PERRLA.
C.The area around the sutures is reddened and swollen.
D.Respirations decrease to 10 breaths/min.
D - Rationale:
:Hydromorphone is an opioid agonist-analgesic of opiate
receptors that inhibits ascending pathways and can cause
respiratory depression. Older adults are more sensitive
to opioids so the "start low and go slow" approach
should be taken. Option A lists common side effects of
opioids, particularly the opiates, which are usually
harmless and often transient
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