1. A 44-year-old man is admitted with gram-negative bacteremia. He receives 4 days of
parenteral aminoglycoside therapy and develops acute tubular necrosis (ATN). Antibiotic
therapy is adjusted on the basis of culture and sensitivity results. Which set of laboratory
data is most consistent with this presentation?
. BUN/SCr ratio of 10–15:1, urine sodium less than 10 mOsm/L, FENa less than 1%,
specific gravity more than 1.018, muddy casts.
2. A 59-year-old patient who has had category G5 CKD for 10 years is maintained on
chronic hemodialysis. He has a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease (CAD),
mild congestive heart failure (CHF), and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Medications are as
follows: epoetin 10,000 units intravenously three times/week at dialysis, renal
multivitamin once daily, atorvastatin 20 mg/day, insulin, and calcium acetate 1334 mg
three times/day with meals. Laboratory values are as follows: hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL,
intact parathyroid hormone (PTH) 300 pg/mL, Na 140 mEq/L, K 4.9 mEq/L, SCr 7.0
mg/dL, calcium 9 mg/dL, albumin 3.5 g/dL, and phosphorus 4.8 mg/dL. He has a serum
ferritin concentration of 80 ng/mL and a transferrin saturation (TSAT) of 14%. Mean
corpuscular volume, mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration, and white blood cell
count (WBC) are all normal. He is afebrile. Which is the best approach to managing
anemia in this patient Add intravenous iron
Category | Exams and Certifications |
Comments | 0 |
Rating | |
Sales | 0 |