1. A 65-year-old male patient with a history of chronic renal failure presents with fever, hypotension, and confusion. Blood cultures are drawn and empiric antibiotic therapy is initiated. Which initial antibiotic regimen is most appropriate for this patient suspected of sepsis? A. Vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam B. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin C. Clindamycin and gentamicin D. Metronidazole and ciprofloxacin Answer: A. Vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam Rationale: This regimen covers a broad spectrum of potential pathogens, including MRSA, and is recommended for initial empiric therapy in septic patients with risk factors for multi-drug resistant organisms. 2. A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected sepsis. Which of the following symptoms would indicate an early sign of sepsis? A. Bradycardia B. Hyperglycemia C. Warm, flushed skin D. Decreased urine output Answer: C. Warm, flushed skin Rationale: Warm, flushed skin can be an early sign of sepsis due to vasodilation and increased blood flow as part of the body's initial inflammatory response. 3. In the management of sepsis, what is the significance of lactate levels in a patient's blood work? A. Elevated lactate levels indicate increased oxygen delivery to tissues. B. Elevated lactate levels are a sign of anaerobic metabolism and tissue hypoperfusion. C. Low lactate levels suggest an ongoing infection. D. Low lactate levels indicate effective antibiotic therapy. Answer: B. Elevated lactate levels are a sign of anaerobic metabolism and tissue hypoperfusion. Rationale: Lactate is produced when cells metabolize glucose without adequate oxygen (anaerobic metabolism). Elevated levels in sepsis suggest tissue hypoperfusion and can be a marker of severity. 4. A patient with sepsis is prescribed norepinephrine as a first-line