1. A 25-year-old primigravida at 40 weeks gestation presents with spontaneous rupture of membranes and contractions every 5 minutes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? A. Administer tocolytics B. Perform a Cesarean section C. Conduct a sterile vaginal exam D. Prescribe bed rest Answer: C. Conduct a sterile vaginal exam Rationale: A sterile vaginal exam is necessary to assess the progress of labor after the rupture of membranes and to check for any signs of infection or cord prolapse. 2. During labor, a fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing shows late decelerations. What is the most likely cause? A. Fetal head compression B. Umbilical cord compression C. Maternal hypotension D. Uteroplacental insufficiency Answer: D. Uteroplacental insufficiency Rationale: Late decelerations are usually a sign of uteroplacental insufficiency, indicating that the fetus is not receiving adequate oxygenation during contractions. 3. A patient in active labor has a cervical dilation of 4 cm an hour ago and now is 6 cm dilated. What phase of labor is she in? A. Latent phase B. Active phase C. Transition phase D. Second stage Answer: B. Active phase Rationale: The active phase of labor is characterized by more rapid cervical dilation, typically from 4 to 7 cm. 4. Which medication is commonly used for its tocolytic effect to suppress premature labor? A. Oxytocin B. Misoprostol C. Nifedipine