1. A patient with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which pathophysiological mechanism is most likely responsible for this? - A) Decreased serotonin activity - B) Increased norepinephrine activity - C) Dopamine deficiency - D) GABA overactivity Answer: B) Increased norepinephrine activity Rationale: Manic episodes in bipolar disorder are often associated with increased levels of norepinephrine, which can lead to heightened arousal and activity levels. 2. When considering the pathophysiology of schizophrenia, which neurotransmitter is most commonly associated with the positive symptoms of this mental health disorder? - A) Serotonin - B) Dopamine - C) Acetylcholine - D) Norepinephrine Answer: B) Dopamine Rationale: Positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, are thought to be related to dopamine dysregulation in certain pathways of the brain. 3. In the context of major depressive disorder, what role does the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis play in the stress response? - A) It diminishes the stress response. - B) It has no role in the stress response. - C) It amplifies the stress response. - D) It modulates only the parasympathetic nervous system. Answer: C) It amplifies the stress response.