NRNP 6531
a 72 year old female patient reports a 6 month history of gradually progressive
swollen and painful distal interphalangeal (dip) joints of one hand. she has no
systemic symptoms but the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (esr), antinuclear
antibody (ana), and rheumatoid factor (rf) are all minimally elevated. what is the
most likely diagnosis? - answer-ostheoaethritis
a 32 year old male patient complains of urinary frequency and burning on
urination for 3 days. urinalysis reveals bacteriuria. he denies any past history of
urinary tract infection. the initial treatment should be: - answer-trimethoprim
sulfamethoxazole for 3 dyas
a thymectomy is usually recommended in the early treatment of which disease? -
answer-myasthenia gravis
which of the following is a potential acquired cause of thrombophilia - answerantiphospholipid antibodies
phalen's test, 90°wrist flexion for 60 seconds, reproduces symptoms of: - answercarpal tunnel syndrome
which patient would benefit most from screening for type 2 diabetes? - answeran obese female with recurrent vaginitis