1. A 45-year-old female patient presents with a complaint of persistent

lower abdominal pain. Based on the current evidence-based guidelines,

which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?

 A) Transvaginal ultrasound

 B) Complete blood count (CBC)

 C) Urinalysis

 D) Pelvic MRI

 Answer: A) Transvaginal ultrasound

 Rationale: Transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred initial diagnostic test

for women presenting with lower abdominal pain as it provides detailed

images of the reproductive organs and can help identify gynecological

conditions such as ovarian cysts or fibroids.

2. In managing menopause-related symptoms, which of the following

therapeutic options aligns with contemporary practice for a patient who

prefers non-pharmacological management?

 A) Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

 B) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)

 C) Antidepressant medication

 D) Over-the-counter (OTC) supplements

 Answer: B) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)

 Rationale: CBT is an evidence-based non-pharmacological approach

that helps manage menopause-related symptoms by addressing

psychological and behavioral factors.

3. When assessing cardiovascular risk in postmenopausal women, which

factor is most significant according to current guidelines?

 A) Age

 B) Family history of heart disease

 C) Body mass index (BMI)

 D) Smoking status

 Answer: D) Smoking status

 Rationale: Smoking is a modifiable risk factor that significantly

increases the risk of cardiovascular disease in postmenopausal women.

4. For a patient with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), which of the

following management strategies is recommended to improve fertility