1. How does a nasopharyngeal airway maintain a patent airway? A. Displaces the jaw forward B. Keeps the tongue in an anterior position C. Ensures complete dilation of the nares D. Blocks salivary and secretion glands - Correct Answer-B. 2) A 28 year old officer was struck in the head while entering a hostile environment. Upon assessment, you note that he has an irregular respiratory pattern, elevated blood pressure, and a decreased pulse. At what level should you maintain this patient's capnography? A) 45-50 mmHg B) 36-40 mmHg C) Less than 30 mmHg D) 30-35 mmHg - Correct Answer-B. 3) An unconscious casualty has suffered multiple injuries as a result of an IED blast. Vital signs P 132, R 22. During the Indirect Threat Care phase, what should you do to ensure the patient has a patent airway? A) Insert an oropharyngeal airway B) Place the patient in the recovery position C) Perform a surgical cricothyroidotomy D) Perform endotracheal intubation - Correct Answer-B. 4) An adult patient only responds to painful stimuli. She is bleeding from multiple entrance and exit wounds. She has a weak moan and is writhing in pain. Several attempts at peripheral IV access was unsuccessful. What should you do? A) Administer morphine per oral B) Attempt IV access for a 3rd time C) Establish external jugular D) Establish I/0 access - Correct Answer-D. 5) A 41 year old male has suffered a gunshot wound to the right shoulder. The bleeding is controlled but he begins to present with difficulty breathing and decreased chest rise on the right side. What should you suspect? A) Airway obstruction B) Hemothorax C. Tension pneumothorax D) Hypoperfusion - Correct Answer-B. 6) Applying direct pressure to a wound is an appropriate intervention for which of the following casualties? A) Conscious victim with heavy bleeding during Indirect Threat Care B) Unconscious victim with no visible bleeding during Indirect Threat Care C) Conscious victim with trickling bleeding during Direct Threat Care D) Conscious victim with heavy bleeding during Direct Threat Care - Correct Answer-A. 7) A 30 ear old female has partial-thickness burns on 60% of her total body surface area. Vital signs are BP 76/50, P 140, R 26. When should fluid resuscitation be initiated? A) As soon as venous access is obtained B) Only en route to the hospital C) After analgesia administration D) When the patient becomes unconscious - Correct Answer-A. 8) What is the most immediate threat to a patient with burns covering greater than 20% total body surface area? A) Infection B) Massive fluid shifts C) Hypothermia D) Compartment syndrome - Correct Answer-C. 9) After a mass casualty incident, you are re-triaging patients. A 35 year old male has a gunshot wound to the upper right chest. He was treated with a non-vented occlusive dressing. Now he is anxious and complains of difficulty breathing. What should you do? A) Place in position of comfort B) Apply a second occlusive dressing C) Manually burp the occlusive dressing D) Perform needle decompression - Correct Answer-C. 10) A 29 year old bystander has a gunshot wound to the upper right leg. A tourniquet was applied prior to arrival at the treatment area. He complains of severe leg pain. Vital signs are BP 110/50, P 100, R 24. What should you do? A) Administer 2 acetaminophen 650 mg bilayer caplets PO and Meloxicam 15 mg PO B) Reassess tourniquet effectiveness and administer 50 mg of ketamine IM C) Continue to monitor casualty and move on to the next patient D) Initiate an IV of normal saline and administer a 500 mL fluid bolus - Correct AnswerC 11) A 35 year old male has suffered partial thickness burns to his chest, arms, and face. He complains of severe pain. He speaks in 2-3 word sentences with a raspy voice. His facial hair is singed. Vital signs are BP 150/80, P 130, R 32 and shallow. What should you do?