1. A patient with a history of schizophrenia is admitted to the hospital for a non-related injury. Which antipsychotic medication would be most appropriate to manage their symptoms without significant sedation? - A) Clozapine - B) Haloperidol - C) Risperidone - D) Aripiprazole Answer: D) Aripiprazole. Rationale: Aripiprazole is known for its lower sedative profile compared to other antipsychotics, making it suitable for patients who need to maintain alertness. 2. During a stressful period, a patient exhibits a sudden loss of motor function in their legs, but the MRI shows no physiological cause. What is the most likely diagnosis? - A) Conversion disorder - B) Somatic symptom disorder - C) Malingering - D) Factitious disorder Answer: A) Conversion disorder. Rationale: Conversion disorder involves the presentation of neurological symptoms, such as paralysis, without a neurological diagnosis, often following acute stress. 3. A nurse n